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the following, (1 Cor. xv. 23 to 28.) “But every man in his own order: Christ the first fruits; afterwards they that are Christ's at his coming. Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up
the kingdom to God, even the Father'; when he shall have put down all rule, and all authority and power. For he must reign till he hath put all enemies under his feet. The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted which did put all things under him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all thing's under him, that God may be all in all."
Here then are two passages by the same writer, apparently in complete contradiction to each other. Are we to reason upon them or not? In what manner will you reason upon that passage which I have adduced, so as in any way to make Christ God. He is to give up the kingdom, and to become subject to him who. put it into his hands.
The passage adduced on your side only wants a stop in a different place; (and you are aware that the New Testament was written without stops) it will then read thus: “Of whom was Christ, according to the flesh. God, who is over all, , be blessed for ever. As a proof that the apostle meant the expression as a holy exclamation or prayer, he subjoins, Amen, All this is clear and natural. If you can as clearly explain the passage I have adduced from the Corinthians, so as to accord with your system, we shall then be upon a par.t
* For a number of authorities in favour of this punctuation see Belsham's Calm Inquiry, p. 222. Griesbach says this punctuation was adopted by many of the Fathers.
“ The punctuation of the Bible is a modern invention. In the ancient manuscripts no marks are found, except a point and a blank space. The comma was invented in the eighth century; the semicolon in the ninth; the other stops were discovered afterwards. The spirits and accents are said to have been introduced by Aristophanes, of Byzantium, before the Christian æra; but unless the Codd. Vaticanus and Covilianus be exceptions, they are found in no Greek manuscript written before the seventh century."
Butler's Horæ Biblicæ, Vol. I. p. 223. + “The early Christian writers, who were but too much disposed to exalt the person of Christ, did not understand these
A third passage is (Titus ii. xiii.) “Looking for that blessed hope, and the glori
words as spoken of him. Some of them pronounce it to be rashness and impiety, to say that Christ was the God over all, which they would not have done if this passage had belonged to him; others affirm, that no pious person could use such language concerning Christ. Dr. Clarke, Scrip. Doctr. p. 85."
“ The best critics have observed that the word will full as well admit this construction as the other: the verb esw, be, on other occasions being left to be supplied. See Matt. xv. 5.
“It is also observed, that in all other places the term EUAgyrtos, blessed, is appropriated to the Father only: and when at any time Christ is said to be evaoy nuevos, blessed, as Matt. xxi. 9, it is quite another thing.
“ It remains, therefore, that the words in question are to be read, ‘God, who is over all, be blessed for ever;' and are to be understood as a sudden pious thought, and ejaculation of the apostle's to Almighty God, struck with admiration of the divine goodness in the subject before him. And this is rendered the more probable, by its being consonant to the apostle's manner of writing, to interrupt the matter he is treating of, by breaking forth into such devout strains. Thus, Ephesians i. 3, immediately after his salutation of them, he strikes out; “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly things, in Christ;' and not long after, in the same Epistle, iii. 20, Now unto him that is able to do exceeding abundantly, above all that we can ask or think;' &c. See also, 'Rom. i. 25. xi. 23. 2 Cor. i. 3. xi. 31.
“I should think these arguments must be sufficiently convincing to all, that St. Paul, in this place, is far from styling Christ, God over all. But I would also wish the reader to make use of his own understanding, and consider whether the
ous appearing of the great God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ.” We have only to prefix the sign of the genitive case before “our Saviour,” and then it explains itself; “ of the great God, and of our Saviour Jesus Christ.”* Evidently speaking of two distinct persons.
The next text to be adduced is, (Heb. i. 8.) “ But unto the Son, he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever.” I add the next verse, - Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.” Explain these two passages upon your system, and see what they imply.
You imagine the apostle Paul to represent God, the great Jehovah, as addressing his Son; and to use this noble appel
apostle, whether any man in the use of his reason, could advance such a contradiction, as in the same sentence, to call Christ the most High God, and also a Jew lineally descended from Jews; for this last is the meaning of the words of whom as concerning the flesh.'»
Lindsey's List of False Readings, p. 63. • This is the translation given by Archbishop Newcome.
lation : "O God, thy throne is for ever and ever.” Then immediately to inform this Son, that because he had loved righteousness, God, even his God, had anointed him with the oil of gladness above his fellows! Is this Jehovah addressing Jehovah ? What can be meant by his being anointed above his fellows? Say not that it means the Great God ! Will you
then prefer your construction, or the following? “ Thy throne, O God," may
with propriety be translated, “God is thy throne,” thy support, thy firm bulwark and security. But take the expression as you will, it is only a quotation from the 46th Psalın and the 6th verse; where it is uttered of Solomon.* - One more passage under this division must be noticed, (1 John v. 20.) “And we are in him that is true, even in bis
* See Lindsey's List of False Readings in loc. “God is thy throne for ever and ever.” — Wakefield. “God is the support of thy throne."--Sykes, “ The sense is, 'God himself is thy perpetual throne,' that is, when applied to Solomon, as a throne supports men firmly, (immoveably) so God shall always support thee in thy kingdom ;' when applied to Christ, God bimself shall support thee in thy kingdom, which shall never end."' - Grotius.